Washington State Law
RCW 61.34
In Plain Language
This is my non-expert, not-a-lawyer effort to translate Washington State law RCW 61.34 to plain language, for the purpose of helping me to fully understand it as a prospective preforeclosure flipper (a law-abiding, honest, ethical, and responsible one). Also at the end is my summary of the 2014 Washington State Supreme Court case about RCW 61.34.
If you have any comments, please send them to me at greglove@oz.net.
THIS IS NOT LEGAL ADVICE.
IF YOU WANT ADVICE ABOUT RCW 61.34
YOU SHOULD CONSULT A LAWYER.
But first, my own summary:
RCW 61.34 generally identifies 3 categories of actions and actors. The first one it defines as a crime. The other two are legal, and the first of those is a subset of the other:
Here’s the law:
http://apps.leg.wa.gov/rcw/default.aspx?cite=61.34
Here’s my effort at a translation of RCW 61.34 into plain language. Again I am NOT AN INDUSTRY EXPERT, NOT A LAWYER, and this is NOT LEGAL ADVICE:
RCW 61.34.010 – Legislative findings
The legislature finds [in 1988] that there is a lot of fraudulent equity skimming going on and therefore establishes this law to criminalize it.
Many of the definitions in 61.34.020 are circular; i.e. two or more definitions refer to each other and therefore possibly logically meaningless. However, the legislative intent is in all cases clear enough, and that’s what counts here.
“Person” is defined as:
“Dwelling” is defined as:
“Mortgage” is defined as:
“Act of equity skimming” is defined as:
Note that this definition does not depend on any of the definitions below about the buyer, seller, the home, or the deal.
“Pattern of equity skimming” is defined as:
Note that 61.34.030 below defines this as a FELONY.
“In danger of foreclosure” is defined as:
“Distressed home” is defined as:
In a 2014 decision, the WA supreme court defined “at risk of loss due to nonpayment of taxes” very broadly and plainly, not dependent on any technical terms or conditions. In particular, it can apply even if no certificate of tax delinquency has been served:
A local hard money lender cautioned me in a conversation on Monday 11/5/2018 that local lawyers have told him that effectively everyone in Washington State with a mortgage is considered a “distressed homeowner”, and their home is a “distressed home”, according to RCW 61.34. Unless they are absentee; not living in the home.
“Homeowner” is defined as:
The definition for “distressed homeowner” does not reference this definition of “homeowner” (instead it just references “owner”, which is not defined here in RCW 61.34).
So how does this definition of “homeowner” figure into 61.34? 61.34 references “homeowner” other than “distressed homeowner” only in these three places, which seem random and not really relevant to occupancy of the home in the last 180 days:
- 61.34.10 (the rationale for passing 61.34)
- 61.34.020(11) (the definition of “In danger of foreclosure”)
- 61.34.070(2) (waiver of rights provided by 61.34 is unenforceable)
A local hard money lender told me in a conversation on Monday 11/5/2018 that local lawyers have told him that buying preforeclosures from absentee owners is safe under RCW 61.34 because they are not considered “distressed homeowners”. Which suggests that even though it isn’t shown in the definition of “distressed homeowner” at 61.34.020(7), the definition of “homeowner” is included in the definition of “distressed homeowner”.
QUESTIONS:
Does this definition of “homeowner” apply to the definition of “distressed homeowner”? If the homeowner has not lived in the home in the last 180 days, do they not qualify as a “distressed homeowner” under 61.34?
If this definition of “homeowner” does NOT apply to the definition of “distressed homeowner”, how does this definition of “homeowner” figure into 61.34?
“Distressed homeowner” is defined as:
This definition does not reference the definition of “homeowner” above. Instead it just references “owner”, which is not defined here in RCW 61.34.
A local hard money lender told me in a conversation on Monday 11/5/2018 that local lawyers have told him that buying preforeclosures from absentee owners is safe under RCW 61.34 because they are not considered “distressed homeowners”. Which suggests that even though it isn’t shown in the definition of “distressed homeowner” at 61.34.020(7), the definition of “homeowner” is included in the definition of “distressed homeowner”.
“Financial institution” is defined as:
“Nonprofit credit counseling service” is defined as:
“Distressed home consultant” is defined as:
“Distressed home consulting transaction” is defined as:
“Resale” is defined as:
“Resale price” is defined as:
This definition is not used anywhere in 61.34.
“Distressed home conveyance” is defined as:
So this INCLUDES deals where the investor and homeowner share the proceeds from reselling the home, if the homeowner is allowed to continue to occupy the home after selling it to the investor.
But it does NOT include:
So if you want to avoid the laws restricting deals defined as “distressed home conveyances”, you can buy the home outright with no sharing of proceeds from reselling it, and/or disallow the homeowner from occupying the home after you buy it. Just remember the deal is still a “Distressed home consulting transaction”; see 61.34.50 & 61.34.60 for the requirements for those.
The definitions of “distressed home purchaser” and “distressed home conveyance” refer to each other. But the legislative intent of their meanings is clear, and it’s still possible to determine whether the deal is a “distressed home conveyance” and whether the buyer is a “distressed home purchaser”:
QUESTION:
Does “not allowing the homeowner to occupy the home” mean that the buyer needs the homeowner to vacate the home before buying it? Or is there an amount of time before they have to vacate? If so, how much time?
“Distressed home purchaser” is defined as:
This definition makes the important distinction that the investor is only a “distressed home purchaser” if the deal fits the definition here of a “distressed home conveyance”. If the deal does not fit that definition, that the investor is merely a “distressed home consultant” (even if buying the home), and the deal is a “distressed home consulting transaction”.
The definitions of “distressed home purchaser” and “distressed home conveyance” refer to each other. But the legislative intent of their meanings is clear, and it’s still possible to determine whether the deal is a “distressed home conveyance” and whether the buyer is a “distressed home purchaser”:
- No matter what the meaning of “distressed home conveyance” is, the description of “distressed home purchaser” is not met if the deal is not defined as a “distressed home conveyance”. So if the deal is not a “distressed home conveyance”, then the buyer is not defined as a “distressed home purchaser” -- no matter what the meaning of “distressed home conveyance” is.
RCW 61.34.030 – Criminal Penalty
Willfully engaging in a “pattern of equity skimming” is a FELONY. Each act of equity skimming is a separate offense for the purpose of determining the sentence.
RCW 61.34.040 – Application of consumer protection act—Remedies are cumulative
The damages awarded to the plaintiff may be doubled or tripled, up to $100,000.
This applies to EVERYTHING in 61.34.
RCW 61.34.045 – Arbitration not required
You cannot require the distressed homeowner to accept arbitration. If it’s in the contract, it’s unenforceable.
RCW 61.34.050 – Distressed home consulting transaction—Requirements—Notice
A “distressed home consulting transaction”:
RCW 61.34.060 – Distressed home consultant—Fiduciary duties
A “distressed home consultant” has a fiduciary relationship with the “distressed homeowner”, and is subject to all requirements for fiduciaries otherwise applicable under state law. These duties include, but are not limited to:
Importantly, this fiduciary duty locks in the moment you solicit or initiate contact with the homeowner in danger of foreclosure. Even if you don't make any agreement with them, in fact even if they never respond to your solicitation, you still have this fiduciary duty toward them. Something to keep in mind if they go through to foreclosure and you buy their home at the foreclosure auction. Would it have any impact on what you are required to do for them as the new owner of the foreclosed home? What if you were in discussion with them, and they allowed you to inspect the home interior, but then no agreement was made and you buy at auction, being at an advantage compared to other buyers because you've inspected the interior? Probably no one really knows.
Fiduciary duty is serious business. No preforeclosure flipper should take it lightly. Besides reading 61.34.060 (not just this translation but also the actual law), read more about it online. Wikipedia is a good place to start. Also google it, and also google “Washington State” and “Fiduciary Duty”. A person should have a good sense of what fiduciary duty really means before taking it on.
Would fiduciary duty have any impact on how much money an investor can legally make on a deal? Here’s an interesting case where a Washington State appeals court decided that an employee with fiduciary duty to their employer “is not generally bound by a fiduciary duty ... when negotiating his or her own compensation with the client-employer”:
It certainly seems to make sense that a person with fiduciary duty to a client is not bound by that fiduciary duty when negotiating how much money to charge the client for their own services. Because acting in the client’s best interest, and not compromising the client’s interest in favor of the fiduciary’s interest, would mean working for the client for free. Or even paying for the privilege of working for them.
I think a fiduciary, when setting their own fee or negotiating their own salary with their client, would still have the fiduciary duty to be scrupulously honest and open about it. No sneakiness or sleight of hand. No hidden fees. No surprises. The homeowner should be made well aware of how much money, to the best of your knowledge, you’re likely to make on the deal.
QUESTION:
Would fiduciary duty have any impact on how much money an investor can legally make on a deal? Or is it enough to fully disclose that to the homeowner?
RCW 61.34.070 – Waiver of rights
A person may not induce or attempt to induce a “distressed homeowner” to waive his or her rights under 61.34.
Any waiver by a homeowner of the provisions of 61.34 is void and unenforceable.
RCW 61.34.080 – Distressed home reconveyance—Requirements
A “distressed home purchaser” shall enter into a “distressed home” reconveyance in the form of a written contract. The contract must be written in at least twelve-point boldface type in the same language principally used by the “distressed home purchaser” and “distressed homeowner” to negotiate the sale of the “distressed home”, and must be fully completed, signed, and dated by the “distressed homeowner” and “distressed home purchaser” before the execution of any instrument of conveyance of the “distressed home”.
(Reconveyance means transferring title back to the distressed homeowner after they have, for example, paid off a loan. Does not apply if the agreement does not include transferring title back to them, such as if reselling the home on the market.)
Remember “distressed home purchaser” does not apply to:
QUESTION:
Reconveyance means transferring title back to the homeowner, after the homeowner has fulfilled all obligations for it such as paying off a loan. Why would they need a new contract to do that? Does this section just mean that the terms of the reconveyance must be included in the contract for the conveyance of title from the investor to the homeowner? Does “enter into a distressed home reconveyance” really mean “enter into a CONTRACT THAT INCLUDES TERMS FOR A distressed home reconveyance”?
RCW 61.34.090 – Distressed home reconveyance—Entire agreement—Terms—Notice
The contract required in 61.34.080 must contain the entire agreement. See details at 61.34.090.
RCW 61.34.100 – Distressed homeowner’s right to cancel
The homeowner can cancel any contract with a “distressed home purchaser” within 5 days with no penalty. Any written notice is adequate to cancel the contract.
Remember “distressed home purchaser” does not apply to:
RCW 61.34.110 – Notice of distressed homeowner’s right to cancel
Detailed requirements of how the contract in 61.34.080 must inform the homeowner of their right to cancel within 5 days with no penalty.
The contract in 61.34.080 is about reconveyance. Here it requires that contract to say “You may cancel this contract for the sale of your house”. That doesn’t sound like transferring ownership back to the distressed homeowner. Need to ask.
Remember “distressed home purchaser” does not apply to:
RCW 61.34.120 – Distressed home purchaser—Prohibited practices
A “distressed home purchaser” shall not:
(Remember that “distressed home purchaser” does not include an investor who buys the distressed home outright with no plan to ever transfer title back to the distressed homeowner AND no sharing of the proceeds from reselling the home with the distressed homeowner.)
A “distressed home purchaser” must do one of the following:
(Remember that “distressed home purchaser” does not include an investor who buys the distressed home outright with no plan to ever transfer title back to the distressed homeowner AND no sharing of the proceeds from reselling the home with the distressed homeowner.)
In 2014 a case about RCW 61.34 reached the Washington State Supreme Court. Here’s their decision:
https://www.memberize.net/clubportal/clubdocs/1127/DPCA%20Opinion%20-%20No%20882151--20140206.pdf
And here’s my effort at a summary of it:
A homeowner lost his job in 2008. He already owed King County over $10,000 in
unpaid property taxes on his house which he had inherited from his grandfather.
He had learning disabilities and limited education, and was unable to read or
understand legal documents. He sought help getting a loan secured by his equity
in the home.
He was introduced to a mortgage broker. He thought he was being offered a $100,000 loan, and agreed to it. But in fact the deal was for him to sell his house for $100,000 and lease it for 18 months with a buy-back option. His house was worth about $230,000 at the time. After paying off liens, and excessive fees by those helping him get the loan, he received only $4,697 from the sale. Fees for those “helping” him totaled $10,000.
When the homeowner realized what the deal really was, he sued for violation of RCW 61.34. He lost the case because the lower court said his house did not meet the definition in 61.34 of a “distressed home”, because King County had not issued a certificate of tax delinquency. The court of appeals agreed. So he took it to the Washington State Supreme Court.
The Supreme Court found that RCW 61.34 does not define “at risk of loss due to nonpayment of taxes”. Both parties agreed that it was “due to nonpayment of taxes”. At issue was the meaning of “at risk of loss”.
The defendants argued that “at risk of loss” should be defined as having received a certificate of tax delinquency from the county as described in RCW 84.64.050 of the lien foreclosure act. The plaintiff argued that “at risk of loss” should have it’s plain, dictionary meaning.
The attorney general agreed with the plaintiff. The attorney general was an “amicus” in the case (a non-litigant with a strong interest in the subject matter), and per standard procedure his opinion was given “great weight” because his office was charged with enforcing RCW 61.34.
The Supreme Court found that:
Based on those findings, the WA Supreme Court assigned the text “at risk” it’s plain dictionary meaning of “vulnerable”, noting that this was consistent with the use of that phrase in other Washington State statutes. They vacated the lower courts’ decisions that it depended on receiving certificate of tax delinquency from the county, and sent the case back to them to try again based on this decision.
The WA Supreme Court recognized that the precedent this decision sets has “practical difficulties”, requiring relatively laborious “case-by-case determinations” dependent in part on a person’s resources and ability to get a loan, but noted that it was “faithful to the legislature’s intent” and that “trial courts are well equipped to conduct the requisite case-specific factual inquiries to determine whether a property is sufficiently ‘at risk’ to be characterized as distressed”.
So what can a foreclosure flipper do to avoid getting in trouble over this Washington State Supreme Court decision? Assume that if the homeowner has unpaid back taxes, and is interested in financial help, then the home probably fits the description of a “distressed home” at RCW 61.34.020(2)(a), and proceed in conformance to the requirements in 61.34.
More broadly, don’t deceive and cheat your clients. The defendants in that case thought they had found a loophole, combined with a client who couldn’t understand legal contracts, that allowed them to cheat him out of $130,000. The court set them straight on that, but in a statute as tangled and murky as RCW 61.34, there may be other loopholes. So what? Don’t use them. Instead, sell seminars and books telling other people how to use them (just kidding).
Except where quoting Washington State law, this page is Copyright © Greg Lovern 2018. All rights reserved.